Chapter 3: Mathematics of the Portfolio Frontier

Study notes and chapter summaries

Section 3.1: Second-Degree Stochastic Dominance (SSD)

Core Idea

This leads us to portfolio selection: among all portfolios offering the same expected return, the dominant one is the one with the least variance.

What Is Second-Degree Stochastic Dominance (SSD)?

SSD is a decision rule for risk-averse investors.

Let \( F_A(x) \) and \( F_B(x) \) be cumulative distribution functions (CDFs) of the returns of assets A and B.

We say A dominates B in the second degree if:

\[ \int_{-\infty}^{x} F_A(t)\, dt \leq \int_{-\infty}^{x} F_B(t)\, dt \quad \text{for all } x \]

...and strictly less for at least one \( x \). This reflects preference under concave utility.

Interpretation

In Portfolio Context

Suppose you have many portfolios, all yielding \( E[R] = 8\% \).

SSD says: pick the one with the lowest variance — that’s the efficient frontier logic in Markowitz’s framework.

Visual

Risk (Variance) →→→

Portfolio A (Low Variance)
|
|     •
|
|
|          • Portfolio B (Higher Variance)
|
----------------------------
         Same Expected Return
  

Section 3.2: Mean-Variance Model and Investor Preferences

1. The Mean-Variance Model: Origins and Essence

This refers to the Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) introduced by Harry Markowitz, which proposes that investors choose portfolios based on just two things:

Core Assumptions

Visualization: Efficient Frontier

Expected Return ↑
                • A
              •
            •      ← Efficient Frontier
          •
        •
      •
      ----------------------------→ Risk (Standard Deviation)
  

2. Why Mean-Variance? Utility Theory Justification

The preferences assumed in MPT come naturally from standard utility theory:

Mathematically:

These properties justify:

\[ \text{Maximize } E[u(\tilde{W})] \approx u(E[\tilde{W}]) + \frac{1}{2}u''(E[\tilde{W}])\text{Var}(\tilde{W}) \]

3. The Limitation: Only Works for Special Cases

This is a critical caveat. The mean and variance only capture the first two moments of a distribution. But:

Example

Consider two investments with the same mean and variance, but one has fat left tails (higher crash risk). MPT would treat them equally — but any real investor would prefer the safer one.

Visual: Two Distributions With Same Mean/Variance

Return →
            |              *
Probability |       *   *   *
            |    *           *     ← Fat right tail
            | *               *
            |------------------------→
                  Mean
  
Return →
            |     *       *
Probability |  *             *
            |*                 *   ← Fat left tail (crash risk)
            |------------------------→
                  Mean
  

These two have the same \( E[\tilde{R}] \) and \( \text{Var}(\tilde{R}) \), but very different risks.

4. Why Still Use It? Analytical Tractability and Empirical Power

Analytical Tractability

Rich Empirical Implications

Summary Table

Final Thoughts

This section reminds us that the mean-variance model is a practical approximation, not a universal truth. It's powerful because it's simple and useful, not because it's always accurate. Recognizing both its utility and its limits is key to using it wisely in both theoretical and applied finance.

Section 3.3: Utility Function Expansion Using Taylor Series

1. Context: Why Expand Utility Using Taylor Series?

Investors care about their expected utility, not just expected wealth. But computing E[u(~W)] for an arbitrary utility function u and wealth distribution ~W is hard.

To make it tractable, we approximate u(~W) by expanding it around its mean E[~W] using a Taylor series.

2. The Taylor Expansion

Let ~W be the random end-of-period wealth. The utility function is expanded as:

u(~W) = u(E[~W]) + u'(E[~W])(~W - E[~W]) 
+ (1/2)u''(E[~W])(~W - E[~W])² + R₃

Breakdown of Terms:

3. Taking Expectation

Now take the expectation:

E[u(~W)] = u(E[~W]) + (1/2)u''(E[~W])Var(~W) + E[R₃]

Intuition:

4. What Is the Remainder Term R₃?

The remainder term is:

R₃ = ∑ (from n=3 to ∞) [1/n!] × u⁽ⁿ⁾(E[~W]) × (~W - E[~W])ⁿ
E[R₃] = ∑ (from n=3 to ∞) [1/n!] × u⁽ⁿ⁾(E[~W]) × m⁽ⁿ⁾(~W)

Central Moments Summary:

5. Interpretation of Equation

E[u(~W)] ≈ u(E[~W]) + (1/2)u''(E[~W])Var(~W)

Implication:

This justifies mean-variance analysis in portfolio theory.

6. But... Expected Utility Is Not Always Mean-Variance Based

Example:

Same mean and variance, but different investor preferences—mean-variance analysis fails to distinguish.

7. Visualizing the Concepts

Utility Curve and Risk Aversion

Utility ↑
        •
     •     ← u(E[W])
  •
•
---------------------→ Wealth
         ↑
       E[W]

Skewed Distributions With Same Mean/Variance

        •       •
      •   •   •   •
    •       •       •
------------------------→ Return

Mean and variance are the same, but tail behavior differs.

8. Final Takeaways

🔷 Section 3.4: Mean-Variance from Quadratic Utility

🧠 The Idea

The Taylor series remainder term E[R₃] from Section 3.3 vanishes if:

This holds when the utility function is quadratic:

u(W) = aW - (b/2)W², with b > 0

Then: u'(W) = a - bW, u''(W) = -b, and u⁽ⁿ⁾(W) = 0 for n ≥ 3

✅ Result

Since all higher-order derivatives are zero:

E[u(Ẇ)] = u(E[Ẇ]) + (1/2)u''(E[Ẇ])Var(Ẇ)

This expression is exact.

🔍 Rewriting Expected Utility

Given: u(Ẇ) = Ẇ - (b/2)Ẇ²

So: E[u(Ẇ)] = E[Ẇ] - (b/2)E[Ẇ²]

But E[Ẇ²] = (E[Ẇ])² + Var(Ẇ) = μ² + σ²

Therefore: E[u(Ẇ)] = μ - (b/2)(μ² + σ²)

🎯 Implication

Utility depends only on the mean and variance of wealth Ẇ. Mean-variance analysis is therefore exact under quadratic utility.

⚠️ Problems with Quadratic Utility

1. Satiation

2. Increasing Absolute Risk Aversion (IARA)

❌ Counterintuitive Implications

📊 Visual: Quadratic Utility Function

u(W)

│        *
│     *     *   ← Utility increases initially
│   *         *
│ *             *  ← Peaks at satiation point

└──────────────────→ W
                 ↑
            Max utility point

🔶 Section 3.5: Mean-Variance from Multivariate Normality

🧠 Key Idea

Even with an arbitrary utility function, if returns are normally distributed, mean-variance analysis can still be valid.

📌 Why?

🧮 Portfolio Implication

If: Ṙ = (R₁, R₂, ..., Rₙ) ~ MVN(μ, Σ)

Then: Any linear combination Ẇ = wᵗṘ is also normally distributed

So utility maximization reduces to optimization over mean and variance

✅ Advantages of Normality

⚠️ Problems with Normality Assumption

1. Unbounded Below

2. Violates Limited Liability

📘 Lognormal Alternative?

📌 Summary Table

Assumption Utility Function Distributional Assumption Result
Quadratic utility u(W) = aW - (b/2)W² Any distribution Mean-variance preference exact
Arbitrary utility u smooth, concave Multivariate Normal returns Mean-variance preference sufficient
Arbitrary utility Arbitrary Arbitrary distribution Mean-variance preference not valid

🔁 Final Synthesis

Strength Limitation
Mean-variance models are powerful and tractable under quadratic utility or normality But both are strong and unrealistic assumptions
Quadratic utility allows exact mean-variance optimization for any distribution But leads to absurd economic implications like decreasing utility with wealth
Normality assumption avoids those issues But assumes wealth can fall below zero, which violates limited liability
Use mean-variance as an approximation Advanced models incorporate higher moments or bounded wealth, or use expected utility directly

Last updated: August 04, 2025